Latest MCQs Sample Papers 2015-16 (Previous Solved) for Physics, Chemistry, Zoology, Botany, Geography and Geology MCQs Sample Papers Perform for NTS, PPSC, FPSC, SPCS, KPPSC, PMS, CSS, New Entry Test MCQs Solved Sample Papers, Must Practice Now by Adspk

Latest MCQs Sample Papers 2015-16 (Previous Solved) for Physics, Chemistry, Zoology, Botany, Geography and Geology MCQs Sample Papers Perform for NTS, PPSC, FPSC, SPCS, KPPSC, PMS, CSS, New Entry Test MCQs Solved Sample Papers, Must Practice Now by Adspk

Physics MCQs 2015-16 (Solved)

  1. Lorentz force is the sum of:
    a) Gravitational and centripetal force
    c) Magnetic and nuclear force
    d) Electrical and nuclear force
  2. The areas under the hysteresis loop is proportional to
    a) Magnetic energy density
    b) Thermal energy per unit volume
    d) Mechanical energy per unit volume
  3. The frequency of A.C is measured using:
    a) Multimeter b) avometer c) TACHOMETER d) speedometer
  4. Del. E = rho/epsilon not is called
    a) GAUSS’S LAW b) faraday’s law c) ampere’s law d) biot savart’s law
  5. For computation of the rate at which the dipole radiates energy, the interaction of the normal component of __________ is done over sphere of radius R.
    a) ELECTRIC FIELD b) pointing vector c) addition vector d) radiation
  6. Semiconductor materials have _____ bonds.
    a) Ionic b) COVALENT c) mutual d) metallic
  7. The depletion region of a pn junction is formed:
    a) During the manufacturing process
    c) Under reverse bias
    d) When its temperature is reduced
  8. The current amplification factor DC is given by:
    A) IC/IE b) Ic/Ib c)Ib/Ie d) Ib/Ic
  9. In amplitude modulation
    a) Carrier frequency is changed
    c) Three sidebands are produced
    d) Fidelity is improved
  10. Demodulation
    a) Is performed at the transmitting station
    b) Removes side bands
    c) Rectifies modulation signal
  11. Which of the following x-ray lines will have the largest frequency in a given element
    a) K alpha b) K BETA c) L gamma d) it depends on the element
  12. Which of these statements is a consequence of planck’s derivation of a radiation law?
    a) Atomic oscillator can emit and absorb energy at discrete values only
    c) Both A & B
    d) None of these
  13. The Zeeman effect without the spin of the electron is called_____ Zeeman effect
    a) ANOMALOUS b) normal c) paschen d) None of these
  14. Zero point energy of harmonic oscillator is
    a) hw b) HW/2 c) zero d)hw2
  15. According to pauli exclusion principle for two identical ferminions the total __ is antisymmetric
    a) Matrix b) WAVE FUNCTION c) operator d) tensor
  16. The decay rate of a radioactivity is measured in units of
    a) CURIES b) roentgens c) rads d) rems
  17. Why are the fission fragments usually radioactive?
    a) They come originally from radioactive U235
    b) They have a large neutron excess
    d) They are moving at high speed
  18. In a nuclear reactor, the function of the moderator is
    a) To absorb neutrons
    b) To keep the reactor from going critical
    d) To absorb heat from the core
  19. What is the main difficulty associated with the fusion process as a source of electrical power
    a) The scarcity of fuel
    c) The radioactivity of the products
    d) The danger of an explosion
  20. Binding energy of a deuteron is
    A) 2.22 MEV b) 2.8Mev c) 2.3Mev d) none of these

Chemistry MCQs 2015-16

(i) Which of the following substituent deactivates benzene ring and is o, p-directing?
(a) __ NH2
(b) __ Cl
(c) __ OCH3
(d) __ OH

(ii) Which of the following is most readily nitrated?
(a) Toluene
(b) Benzaldehyde
(c) Nitrobenzene
(d) Benzoic Acid

(iii) Ketones can be prepared by reaction of Grignard reagent with:
(a) Acid Amides
(b) Acid Chloride
(c ) Carboxylic Acid
(d) Epoxides

(iv) Which of the following statements about the order of reaction is true?
(a) The order of a reaction can only be determined by experiment.
(b) A second order reaction is also bimolecular
(c) The order of reaction must be a positive integer
(d) The order of reaction increases with increasing temperature.

(v) Polysaccharides yield many monosaccharides on:
(a) Hydration
(b) Oxidation
(c) Reduction
(d) Hydrolysis

(vi) Which of the following is not aromatic?
(a) Benzene
(b) cyclooctatetraene
(c) Pyridine
(d) Phenol

(vii) Which of the following is most basic?
(a) H2O
(b) NH3
(c) CH3 NH2
(d) CH3OH

(viii) Which of the following has lowest pH?
(d) Cl3C COOH

(ix) The equilibrium of two readily interconvertible isomers is called:
(a) Stereoisomerism
(b) Metamerism
(c) Tautomerism
(d) Polymorphism

(x) Which of the following compounds exhibit geometrical isomerism?
(a) 1-Pentene
(b) 2-Pentene
(c) 2-methyl –2-Pentene
(d) 2-methyl –2-Butene

(xi) Which of the following gives a tertiary alcohol when treated with Grignard reagent:
(a) HCHO
(b) CH3CHO
(c) C3H5CHO
(d) CH3COCH3

(xii) Which of the following tests is not used to identify aldehydes?
(a) Tollen’s test
(b) Benedict solution test
(c) Fehling solution test
(d) Ammonia test

(xiii) Which is incorrect about alkaloids?
(a) Naturally Occuring
(b) Possess a hetrocyclic ring
(c) Exhibit biological action
(d) acidic in nature

(xiv) Which of the followings will not give iodoform test:
(a) Acetone
(b) Ethylacohol
(c) Benzaldehyde
(d) Acetaldehyde

(xv) The reaction of aniline with bromine water gives:
(a) o-bromoaniline
(b) p-bromoaniline
(c) 2,4-dibromoaniline
(d) 2,4,6-tribromoaniline

(xvi) The reaction of tripalmitin, with sodium hydroxide is called:
(a) Hydrolysis
(b) Saponification
(c) Esterification
(d) Combustion

(xvii) Which one is not Petrochemical?
(a) Napthalene
(b) Mineral Oil
(c) Wax
(d) Table Salt

(xviii) Chemical adsorption:
(a) is exothermic
(b) is irreversible
(c) takes place at high temp.
(d) All of these

(xix) The most commonly used absorbent for chromatographic separation of organic compound is:
(a) Activated charcoal
(b) Fuller’s Earth
(c) Alumina
(d) Silica gel

(xx) Grignard reagent is:
(a) Organo Zinc halide
(b) Organo cadmium bromide
(c) n-Butyl Lithium
(d) Organomagnesium halide

Zoology MCQs 2015-16 (Solved)

(1) Despite the structural diversities they are characterized by having soft body protected by calcareous shell developing from the mantle layer.
(a) Corals
(b) Foraminiferous
(c) Molluses
(d) None of these

(c) Molluses

(2) The members of the phylum are exclusively Marine.
(a) Porifera
(b) Coelenterata
(c) Echino-dermata
(d) None of these

(c) Echino-dermata

(3) How many paired legs are present in Arachnids?
(a) 2 pairs
(b) 3 pairs
(c) 4 pairs
(d) None of these

(c) 4 pairs

(4) A true Coelom is absent in:
(a) Platyhelminthes
(b) Mollusca
(c) Insects
(d) None of these

(a) Platyhelminthes

(5) A single aperture is present in
(a) Nematoda
(b) Cridaria
(c) Annelida
(d) None of these

(b) Cridaria

(6) The following represents Enterocoelous phylum.
(a) Annelida
(b) Mollusca
(c) Echinodermata
(d) None of these

(c) Echinodermata

(7) It is exclusively a Parasitic group.
(a) Ciliata
(b) Mestigophora
(c) Rhizopoda
(d) Sporozoa
(e) None of these

(d) Sporozoa

(8) Most species of Animal Kingdom belong to this Class:
(a) Acazina
(b) Hexapoda
(c) Crustacea
(d) None of these

(b) Hexapoda

(9) Insect mouth parts are serially homologous.
(a) Claspers
(b) Sting apparatus
(c) Cerci
(d) Legs
(e) None of these

(d) Legs

(10) The only groups of animals which are diploblastic in nature:
(a) Platy helminthes
(b) Coelentrata
(c) Porifera
(d) None of these

(b) Coelentrata

11) The phenomenon in which larva becomes sexually mature.
(a) Retrogressive Metamorphosis
(b) Neoteny
(c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
(d) None of these

(b) Neoteny

(12) Amphibians have the following number of chambers in their heart.
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
(e) None of these

(b) 3

(13) The young are born in less developed condition.
(a) Monotremes
(b) Marsupials
(c) Placentals
(d) None of these

(b) Marsupials

(14) Limbs of Sea Cows and Sea Lions are the product of:
(a) Convergent Evolution
(b) Divergent Evolution
(c) Parallel Evolution
(d) None of these

(a) Convergent Evolution

(15) In these animals the teeth are reduced to molars without enamel or no teeth are present.
(a) Moles
(b) Bats
(c) Sloths
(d) None of these

(c) Sloths

(16) Only hind limbs are lost in:
(a) Snakes
(b) Whales
(c) Bats
(d) None of these

(b) Whales

(17) Among the following which snake is non-poisonous?
(a) Krait
(b) Python
(c) Viper
(d) None of these

(b) Python

(18) Which one is excluded from the Phylum Chordata.
(a) Urochordata
(b) Hemichordata
(c) Cephalochordata
(d) None of these

(b) Hemichordata

(19) The earliest known species of birds is:
(a) Archaeopteryx
(b) Hesperornis
(c) Ichthyornis
(d) None of these

(a) Archaeopteryx

(20) A muscular diaphragm helps to move air into and out of the lungs in:
(a) Amphibians
(b) Reptilians
(c) Avians
(d) Mammalians
(e) None of these

(d) Mammalians

Botany MCQs 2015-16

(i) Enzyme Fumarase convert fumaric acid into:
(a) Citric acid
(b) Isocitric acid
(c) lactic acid
(d) Glutamic acid
(e) None of these

(ii) Plants growing under saline conditions are:
(a) Holophytes
(b) Mesophytes
(c) Hygrophytes
(d) Halophytes
(e) None of these

(iii) The first product of CO2 fixation in C3 plants is:
(a) Phosphoglyceric acid
(b) Glycolic acid
(c) Citric acid
(d) Glutamic acid
(e) None of these

(iv) Mutations are most likely to be caused by:
(a) 1AA
(b) CO2
(c) Dextrose
(d) Glycine
(e) None of these

(v) Most of the water absorption in plants takes place through:
(a) Root caps
(b) Root hairs
(c) Stomata
(d) All of these
(e) None of these

(vi) Oxygen produced during photosynthesis comes from:
(a) CO2
(b) Carboxylic acid
(c) Glucose
(d) Protein
(e) None of these

(vii) Chloroplasts in bundle sheath cells of C4 plants do not contain:
(a) Grana
(b) Stroma
(c) Thylakoids
(d) All of these
(e) None of these

(viii) A group of major biotic communities occupying a climatic region of earth is called:
(a) Biome
(b) Biosphere
(c) Biotype
(d) Phenotype
(e) None of these

(ix) In which group of plants stomata open during night:
(a) C3 plants
(b) C4 plants
(c) Halophytes
(d) CAM plants
(e) None of these

(x) The occurrence of vegetation in layers is known as:
(a) Scarification
(b) Stratification
(c) Physiognomy
(d) Pattern
(e) None of these

(xi) A plasmid is a:
(a) DNA
(b) RAN
(c) Protein
(d) Microsome
(e) None of these

(xii) The total Genetic material within a cell is:
(a) Gene bank
(b) Genetic load
(c) Genome
(d) Genetic Marker
(e) None of these

(xiii) Ribsomal RNA helps in:
(a) Replication
(b) Transcription
(c) Translation
(d) Translocation
(e) None of these

(xiv) Which one of the following ions plays most important role in stomatal movement?
(a) K+
(b) Ca++ (c) Cl–
(d) Na+
(e) None of these

(xv) Dormancy in seeds may be due to:
(a) Hard seed coat
(b) Chemical Inhibitors
(c) Immature embryo
(d) All of these
(e) None of these

(xvi) How many ATP molecules are produced when one hexose sugar molecule is converted into two molecules of pyruvic acid during glycolysis?
(a) 15
(b) 26
(c) 28
(d) 36
(e) None of these

(xvii) Open sea constituting about 90% of total ocean surface is called:
(a) Pelgaic zone
(b) Littoral zone
(c) Intertida zone
(d) Neritic zone
(e) None of these

(xviii) Which one of the following RNAs is non-genetic and brings amino acids to the site of protein synthesis?
(a) m RNA
(b) t RNA
(c) hn RNA
(d) pre-r RNA
(e) None of these

(xix) Transfer of material , from higher concentration to lower concentration across semipermeable membrane is called:
(a) Mass flow
(b) Osmosis
(c) Ascent of Sap
(d) Diffusion
(e) None of these

(xx) Optimum phosphorus uptake by roots takes place at:
(a) Neutral pH
(b) Acidic pH
(c) Alkaline pH
(d) All of these
(e) None of these

Geography MCQs 2015-16 (Solved)

(1) Instrument used for the measurement of wind speed is called
(a) Altimeter
(b) Barometer
(c) Anemometer
(d) None of these

(2) Vernal equinox occurs on:
(a) December 21
(b) September 23
(c) June 21
(d) None of these

(3) Atmospheric pressure at sea level is:
(a) 750 mm
(b) 760 mm
(c) 770 mm
(d) None of these

(4) When there is an active upward ascent of lighter warm air over the cold dense air, the front is called:
(a) Cold front
(b) Warm foot
(c) Occluded front
(d) None of these

(5) On 21st of June the sun shines vertically on the:
(a) Tropic of Capricorn
(b) Tropic of cancer
(c) Equator
(d) Arctic circle
(e) None of these

(6) The hot molten material erupted from a volcano is called:
(a) Lava
(b) Magma
(c) Pyro-clast
(d) None of these

(7) The point in the earth from where seismic waves spread out in all directions is:
(a) Seismic Center
(b) Epicenter
(c) Earthquake focus 
(d) None of these

(8) The continental crust ranges from:
(a) 7 to 20 Km in thickness
(b) 20 to 70 Km in thickness
(c) 40 to 150 Km in thickness
(d) None of these

(9) Marble is a:
(a) Sedimentary rock
(b) Igneous rock
(c) Metamorphic rock
(d) None of these

(10) Yardang is produced by:
(a) River
(b) Glacier
(c) Wind
(d) Volcanic activity
(e) None of these

(11) Continental glacier produces the following feature on the earth surface.
(a) V-shaped Valley
(b) U-shaped Valley
(c) Hanging Valley
(d) None of these

(12) The deepest point in the ocean bottom is in:
(a) Indian ocean
(b) Atlantic ocean
(c) Pacific ocean
(d) Arctic ocean
(e) None of these

(13) The flat ocean bottom lying near the continents is called:
(a) Peneplain
(b) Archipelagic Apron
(c) Lacustrine Plain
(d) None of these

(14) Benguela current flows near the western coast of:
(a) Australia
(b) South Africa
(c) Africa
(d) None of these

(15) Waves are caused by:
(a) Gravitational force of moon
(b) Gravitational force of earth
(c) Solar radiation
(d) Winds
(e) None of these

(16) Conical Projection is best suited for:
(a) Polar Regions
(b) Equatorial Regions
(c) Temperate latitudes
(d) None of these

(17) Zero degree meridian is:
(a) 15° East of Prime Meridian
(b) 10° East of Prime Meridian
(c) 5° West of Prime Meridian
(d) None of these

(18) A map on RF 1:2400 will be:
(a) A Large Scale map
(b) Small Scale map
(c) Medium Scale map
(d) None of these

(19) Lines showing places of equal rainfall are called:
(a) Isohalines
(b) Isobars
(c) Isopleths
(d) None of these

(20) Sea water contains on the average about:
(a) 3.5% Salt
(b) 2.7% Salt
(c) 7% Salt
(d) None of these

(1) Technical base for the earliest urban civilization was:
(a) Agriculture
(b) Trade
(c) Mining
(d) None of these

(2) Modern man evolved on the earth at least:
(a) 150,000 to 50,000 years back
(b)300,000 to 100,000 years back
(c) 600,000 to 200,000 years back
(d) 1,000,000 to 555,000 years back
(e) None of these

(3) Han, Asoka and Roman dynasties were characterized by:
(a) Urban culture
(b) Rural set up
(c) Markets
(d) None of these

(4) Thinly spread food gatherers still occupy most of:
(a) Latin America
(b) Southern Europe
(c) Eastern Asia
(d) None of these

(5) Nile Valley is located in:
(a) Central Africa
(b) South Africa
(c) North Africa

(d) West Africa
(e) None of these

(6) Antananarivo is capital of:
(a) Lithuania
(b) Macedonia
(c) Nicaragua
(d) Madagascar
(e) None of these

(7) Shanty towns are feature of:
(a) African large towns
(b) Indian Cities
(c) Eskimo dwellings
(d) None of these

(8) Sadza, a stiff maize porridge is the staple food of:
(a) Syria
(b) North Korea
(c) Newzealand
(d) Zimbabwe
(e) None of these

(9) Water resources care the basis for country’s development in:
(a) Iran
(b) Sudan
(c) Turkey
(d) Spain
(e) None of these

(10) Human Development Index (HDI) is a composite statistic calculated from:
(a) Life expectancy
(b) Educational Expenditure
(c) Foreign Exchange
(d) None of these

(11) Peru, Bolivia and Mexico had centers of advanced culture called:
(a) Aegean
(b) Buddha
(c) Mayan and Inca
(d) None of these

(12) Current position of Human Geography in the U.S. has edited by:
(a) Taaffe
(b) Scholz
(c) Brodnock
(d) Janzen
(e) None of these

(13) Austria and Switzerland are included in:
(a) Northern Europe
(b) Alpine Europe
(c) Mediterranean Europe
(d) None of these

(14) Metal working Industries, collectivized agriculture and export of mineral fuel are features of:
(a) Japan
(b) India
(c) Russian federation 
(d) Germany
(e) None of these

(15) Christaller (1933) pioneered theory of:
(a) Agricultural Locations
(b) Central place
(c) Industrial Locations
(d) None of these

(16) Prairie Provinces are parts of:
(a) Afghanistan
(b) Somalia
(c) Thailand
(d) None of these

(17) The so called Green Revolution began in India in:
(a) 1980
(b) 1970
(c) 1966
(d) 1990
(e) None of these

(18) Myanmar a mountainous country is located in:
(a) South West Asia
(b) South East Asia
(c) Southern Asia
(d) None of these

(19) Systematic colonization of land in South Asia began in:
(a) Mid 18th Century
(b) Mid 19th Century
(c) Mid 20th Century
(d) None of these

(20) Pakistan’s iron and steel mill at Pipri is built by:
(a) British assistance
(b) UAE assistance
(c) German assistance
(d) Soviet assistance
(e) None of these

Geology MCQs 2015-16 (Solved)

(i) Diamonds are stronger than graphite because they have:
(a) Van der Waals bonds
(b) covalent bonds
(c) ionic bonds
(d) metallic bonds

(ii) Bauxite, the principal ore of aluminum is actually which type of soil:
(a) pedalfer
(b) pedocal
(c) caliche
(d) laterite

(iii) The term “groundwater recharge” refers to:
(a) the supply of groundwater that remains stored in the ground for long periods of time
(b) the infiltration and addition of water into the groundwater aquifer
(c) absorption of water by the soil
(d) how fast the groundwater is flowing

(iv) Which of the following aquifers are most at risk to contamination?
(a) deep, confined aquifers
(b) aquifers in igneous rocks
(c) shallow, unconfined aquifers recharged by rivers that drain agricultural or industrial areas
(d) All of these

(v) Doubling of the greenhouse gases in the atmosphere is predicted to cause:
(a) change in rainfall patterns
(b) increase in average global temperature of 1.2 *C
(c) northward movement of optimal growing zones
(d) All of these

(vi) Platinum and chromium deposits are typically associated with:
(a) pegmatites
(b) hydrothermal deposits
(c) black smokers
(d) igneous mafic layered intrusions

(vii) With increasing metamorphism, a shale will go through which of the following textural changes:
(a) phyllite, gneiss, schist, slate
(b) schist, slate, gneiss, phyllite
(c) slate, phyllite, gneiss, schist
(d) slate, phyllite, schist, gneiss

(viii) Most petroleum is generated from source rocks deposited:
(a) in oxic to dysoxic
(b) dysoxic-to-suboxic
(c) suboxic-to-anoxic
(d) dysoxic-to-oxic environments

(ix) The main driving force behind secondary migration in absence of hydrodynamics is:
(a) buoyancy
(b) capillarity
(c) surface tension

(x) Mendeleer proposed that, metallic carbides deep within the Earth reacted at high temperature with H2O, to form hydrocarbons:
(a) methane
(b) ethane
(c) acetylene
(d) benzene

(xi) Good hydrocarbon source rocks are usually:
(a) Coarse grained
(b) fine grained
(c) medium grained

(xii) Oil and Gas Development Corporation was established in:
(a) 1956
(b) 1965
(c) 1961
(d) 1971

(xiii) First discovery of oil Field was made at Khaur in Potwar Basin in:
(a) 1885
(b) 1951
(c) 1915
(d) 1947

(xiv) The zone of leaching in a soil is also called the:
(a) A-horizon
(b) B-horizon
(c) C-horizon
(d) O-horizon

(xv) To be an aquifer, a rock unit must have::
(a) both permeability and porosity
(b) neither permeability nor porosity
(c) permeability, but not porosity
(d) porosity, but not permeability

(xvi) Which formation is most objective as reservoir rock in Potowar region?
(a) Khewra sand stone
(b) Datta sand stone
(b) Pab sand stone
(d) Sakesar Lime stone

(xvii) Geologists use the equation called Darcy’s Law to calculate:
(a) the depth to the water table
(b) the discharge through an aquifer
(c) the water pressure in an aquifer
(d) the porosity of an aquifer

(xviii) Kalabagh Dam was proposed to built on:
(a) Swat River
(b) Kabul River
(c) Indus River
(d) Nilam River

(xix) Chromite ore mines are located in:
(a) Axial folded Belt
(b) Sulaiman Ranges
(c) Trans Indus Ranges
(d) Kharan Ranges
(e) None of these

(xx) Most of the Oil and Gas Fields of Indus Basin discovered in:
(a) Punjab Platform Area
(b) Thar Platform Area
(c) Sargodha High
(d) Kohat-Potwar Basin
(e) None of these

(i) Which of the following is a part of the definition of a mineral?
(a) a liquid that may become solid
(b) man-made
(c) definite chemical composition
(d) unorganized structure
(e) All of these

(ii) Which of the following minerals are arranged in order of increasing hardness?
(a) talc, apatite, corundum, diamond
(b) topaz, quartz, fluorite, corundum
(c) talc, quartz, calcite, diamond
(d) quartz, topaz, diamond, fluorite
(e) fluorite, calcite, gypsum, talc

(iii) How do the crystal structures of micas and feldspars differ from each other?
(a) feldspars are framework silicates, micas are double chain silicates
(b) feldspars are double chain silicates, micas are sheet silicates
(c) micas and feldspars have the same crystalline structure
(d) feldspars are single chain silicates, micas are double chain silicates
(e) micas are sheet silicates, feldspars are framework silicates

(iv) “Sima” is a general term used to refer to:
(a) rocks of the ocean basins
(b) rocks of the continents
(c) None of these
(d) all rocks that compose Earth’s crust
(e) rocks that compose the crust of terrestrial planets

(v) Which of the following parameters influences the viscosity of magma?:
(a) temperature of the magma
(b) oxygen content of the magma
(c) depth of the magma beneath Earth’s surface
(d) quantity of minerals in the magma
(e) all of these

(vi) The Continuous Series of Bowen’s Reaction Series is composed of minerals.
(a) with different chemical compositions but the same mineral structures
(b) with different chemical compositions and different mineral structures
(c) with similar chemical compositions and different mineral structures
(d) with similar chemical compositions and similar mineral structures
(e) None of these

(vii) Plutonic igneous rocks always have:
(a) olivine, calcium feldspar, pyroxene
(b) amphibole, sodium feldspar, biotite
(c) quartz, muscovite, potassium feldspar
(d) phaneritic texture
(e) None of these

(viii) Weathering processes:
(a) only affect igneous rocks
(b) only affect sedimentary rocks
(c) affect all rocks at Earth’s surface
(d) do not adversely affect rocks
(e) cannot be observed directly at Earth’s surface.

(ix) Mud cracks preserved in sedimentary rocks:
(a) are indicative of arid environments characterized by occasional rain
(b) occur only in rain forests
(c) occur whenever plants germinate in rocks
(d) have never been observed in nature

(x) Which of the following lists is arranged in order from lowest to highest grade of metamorphic rock?
(a) gneiss, slate, schist, phyllite
(b) gneiss, schist, phyllite, slate
(c) slate, gneiss , phyllite, schist
(d) slate, phyllite, schist, gneiss
(e) phyllite, gneiss, slate, schist

(xi) The asthenosphere is:
(a) that portion of Earth where rocks behave as brittle solids
(b) that portion of Earth where rocks behave as plastic solids
(c) that portion of Earth where rocks behave as fluids
(d) that portion of Earth where rocks can be found
(e) None of these

(xii) Which of the following is associated with continent-continent convergent plate boundaries?
(a) explosive volcanism
(b) andesite volcanism
(c) large, damaging earthquakes
(d) volcanic mountain chain
(e) All of these

(xiii) An example of a convergent plate boundary is:
(a) the Ouachita Mountains
(b) the Appalachian Mountains
(c) the Himalaya Mountains
(d) the Cascade Mountains
(e) All of these

(xiv) The strike of a layer is:
(a) the angle at which that layer intercepts a horizontal surface
(b) the degree to which the layer has compressed during mountain building
(c) a line formed by the intersection of the layer with the Earth’s surface

(xv) An anticline is a structure in which:
(a) the oldest rock layers are located at the top of the structure
(b) the rock layers dip away from the axis of the structure
(c) rock layers are down warped
(d) All of these

(xvi) The V-shaped outcrop pattern of a plunging syncline will:
(a) be tilted
(b) close in the direction of plunge
(c) open in the direction of plunge
(d) not be observed
(e) point toward the axis

(xvii) Which of the following is not a feature of an anticline?
(a) youngest rocks on the flanks
(b) oldest rocks near the axis
(c) layers dip toward the axis
(d) upwarped rock layers
(e) All of these

(xviii) Which of the following is not a principle used in relative dating?
(a) the Principle of Superposition
(b) the Principle of Original Horizontality
(c) the Principle of Faunal Succession
(d) the Principle of Cross-Cutting Relationships
(e) The Theory of Evolution

(xix) What is the half-life of a radioactive element?
(a) the time required for one-half of a given quantity of the element to decay to its daughter element
(b) the time required for all of the radioactive element to decay to its daughter element
(c) half of the time required for a given quantity of the element to decay to its daughter element
(d) the time required for the radioactive element to decay half of the time
(e) if you observe a radioactive element, half the time it decays, half the time it doesn’t

(xx) The Principle of Faunal Succession states that:
(a) fossils preserved in rock layers are less complex in older rocks
(b) the Theory of Evolution is proven by the succession of fossils observed in rocks
(c) the fossil record of life proves that life has succeeded on Earth
(d) it is unlikely that life could have succeeded on other planets
(e) None of these

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  • Ivana Fergerson

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