Latest PPSC Zoology MCQs Type Sample Paper 2015 for Lecturers Jobs Must Prepare Now

Latest PPSC Zoology MCQs Type Sample Paper 2015 for Lecturers Jobs Must Prepare Now

  1. Evolutionary processes have resulted in approximately ______ million species, of which 1.4 million species have been described
    A) 2
    B) 3
    C) 4
    D) 100
    2. Ideas concerning the theory of organic evolution were published and supported with convincing evidence by Charles Darwin in
    A) 1602.
    B) 1750.
    C) 1859.
    D) 1923.
    3. Through the year 2000, about 92% of population growth occurred in
    A) less developed countries.
    B) the United States.
    C) Europe.
    D) Asia.
    4. The one environmental problem that is the root of all other environmental problems is
    A) pollution.
    B) depletion of fossil fuels.
    C) deforestation.
    D) over population.
    5. The first part of the binomial name of an animal is the
    A) species.
    B) genus.
    C) family.
    D) order.
    6. The study of interactions between organisms and their environment is
    A) cytology.
    B) physiology.
    C) ecology.
    D) systematic.
    7. The study of birds is
    A) ornithology.
    B) mammalogy.
    C) ichthyology.
    D) herpetology.
  2. Evolutionary theory helps explain
    A) the diversity of life.
    B) the relationships within animal groups.
    C) the behavior of animals.
    D) All of the above are correct.
    9. The human population is expected to exceed ____________________ by the year 2010.
    A) 5 billion
    B) 10 billion
    C) 250 million
    D) 6 billion
  3. Prokaryotic cells do not have
    A) centrioles
    B) DNA.
    C) cytoskeletons.
    D) cell walls.
    12. All eukaryotic cells have three basic parts. Which of the following is not a basic part of a typical eukaryotic cell?
    A) nucleus
    B) cytoplasm
    C) plasma membrane
    D) nucleoid
    13. Which of the following is not a function of the cell’s glycocalyx?
    A) transport
    B) cell-to-cell recognition
    C) behavior
    D) recognition
    14. The ability of the plasma membrane to let some substances in and keep others out is called
    A) homeostasis.
    B) selective permeability.
    C) facilitated diffusion.
    D) osmosis.
  4. Energy is required for
    A) simple diffusion.
    B) facilitated diffusion.
    C) osmosis.
    D) active transport.
  5. The bulk movement of material into a cell by the formation of a vesicle is called
    A) simple diffusion.
    B) facilitated diffusion.
    C) endocytosis.
    D) osmosis.
    17. If hydrostatic pressure is used to move a molecule through a membrane, this is termed
    A) filtration.
    B) osmosis.
    C) active transport.
    D) endocytosis.
    18. __________ are the non-membrane bound structures that are the sites for protein synthesis
    A) Centrioles
    B) Lysosomes
    C) Ribosomes
    D) Vacuoles
    19. Which of the following organelles functions in the digestion of materials?
    A) lysosomes
    B) ribosomes
    C) vesicles
    D) microfilaments
    20. Which of the following is not found within a mitochondrion?
    A) DNA
    B) matrix
    C) cristae
    D) RNA
  6. which of the following is not part of cytoskeleton of a eukaryotic cells?
    A) microtubules
    B) microfilaments
    C) intermediate filaments
    D) cilia
  7. The centrioles arise from the
    A) microtubule-organizing center.
    B) microfilament-organizing center.
    C) basal body.
    D) nuclear envelope.
  8. The type of connective tissue that stores lipids is called
    A) adipose tissue.
    B) blood tissue.
    C) epithelial tissue.
    D) storage tissue.
  9. Cells involved with protection, support, and nourishment within the nervous system are called
    A) neurons.
    B) glial cells.
    C) impulse conducting cells.
    D) nerves.
  10. __________ are the functional units of an animal’s body.
    A) Cells
    B) Tissues
    C) Organs
    D) Systems
    26. The highest level or organization in an animal’s body is the __________ level.
    A) Cells
    B) Tissues
    C) Organ
    D) Organ system
    27. All of the following are types of connective tissue except
    A) Blood
    B) Bone
    C) Nervous
    D) Cartilage
    28. The heart is a good example of an organ system.
    A) True
    B) False
    29. Intercalated disks would be found in smooth muscle cells.
    A) True
    B) False
    30. Collagenous fibers would be found in fibro cartilage
    A) True
    B) False
    31. Simple squamous epithelium is found in the air sacs of the lungs.
    A) True
    B) False
    32. Stratified squamous epithelium is found on the surface of the skin.
    A) True
    B) False
    33. Both cilia and flagella function in movement.
    A) true
    B) false
    34. The Golgi apparatus consists of stacks of cisternae
    A) True
    B) False
    35. The period from the time a cell is produced until it completes mitosis is called the
    A) mitotic phase.
    B) cell cycle.
    C) cytokinesis phase.
    D) G1 phase.
    36. Most of the cell cycle is occupied by the
  11. A) G1 phase.
    B) G2 phase.
    C) S phase.
    D) interphase.
  12. Chromosome replication occurs during the __________ of mitosis.
    A) G1 phase.
    B) G2 phase.
    C) S phase.
    D) interphase.
  13. A copy of a chromosome produced by replication is called a
    A) chromatid.
    B) daughter chromosome.
    C) sister chromosome.
    D) both b and c.
  14. The microtubules of the mitotic spindle are attached to the
    A) kinetochore.
    B) centromere.
    C) centrosome.
    D) all of the above (a-c).
    40. Chromosomes become visible with the light microscope during __________ phase.
    A) prophase
    B) metaphase
    C) anaphase
    D) telophase
  15. The mitotic spindle disassembles during what phase of mitosis?
    A) prophase
    B) metaphase
    C) anaphase
    D) telophase
  16. Chromosome replication occurs during the __________ of mitosis.
    A) G1 phase
    B) G2 phase
    C) S phase
    D) interphase
  17. During prophase I of meiosis, homologous chromosomes line up side-by-side in a process called
    A) genetic recombination.
    B) meiosis II.
    C) synapsis.
    D) crossing over.
  18. Crossing over results
    A) synapsis.
    B) syngamy.
    C) genetic recombination.
    D) dyad formation.
    45. Spermatogenesis gives rise to __________ sperm cells.
    A) 1
    B) 2
    C) 3
    D) 4
    46. In the DNA molecule, the base adenine pairs with the base
    A) guanine.
    B) cytosine.
    C) thymine.
    D) uracil.
  19. A DNA nucleotide consists of all of the following EXCEPT:
    A) a base.
    B) ribose.
    C) deoxyribose.
    D) phosphate.
  20. During protein synthesis, ______ is produced in the nucleus and carries the genetic code to the cytoplasm.
    A) transfer RNA
    B) messenger RNA
    C) ribosomal RNA
    D) deoxynucleotide
  21. _______ involves the formation of a polypeptide chain at the:______.
    A) Transcription/nucleus
    B) Transcription/ribosome
    C) Translation/nucleolus
    D) Translation/ribosome
  22. A sequence of three bases in mRNA that codes for an amino acid is a
    A) nucleotide.
    B) nucleoside.
    C) codon.
    D) anticodon.
    50. The ______ carries amino acids to the ribosome where a polypeptide is assembled.
    A) transfer RNA
    B) messenger RNA
    C) ribosomal RNA
    D) deoxynucleotide
    51. During protein synthesis at the ribosome, the ______ pairs with:
    A) nucleotide/nucleoside
    B) codon/anticodon
    C) codon/amino acid
    D) mRNA/DNA
  23. All of the following statements regarding DNA and RNA are true except one. Select the false statement
    A) RNA is single stranded, and DNA is double stranded.
    B) RNA contains the base thymine, and DNA contains the base uracil.
    C) RNA is found in the nucleus and cytoplasm, and DNA is mainly in the nucleus.
    D) RNA contains the sugar ribose, and DNA contains the sugar deoxyribose.
  24. Which of the following are pyrimidine bases found in RNA?
    A) adenine and guanine
    B) cytosine and thymine
    C) adenine and uracil
    D) cytosine and uracil
  25. DNA replication is said to be semiconservative because
    A) it is remarkably error free.
    B) it results in one new DNA molecule and one parental molecule.
    C) it results in two DNA molecules, each consisting of one new and one parental strand.
    D) it results in two completely new parental molecules.
  26. The fact that more than one codon in mRNA can code for a particular amino acid is referred to as
    A) degeneracy.
    B) homology.
    C) wobble.
    D) antiparallel.
  27. Which of the following occurs during transcription?
    A) Messenger RNA is produced.
    B) Transfer RNA delivers amino acids to a ribosome.
    C) Codons pair with anticodons.
    D) A new strand of DNA is synthesized.
  28. Which of the following occurs at the beginning of translation?
    A) A UGA codon is aligned with the P site of the ribosome.
    B) An AUG codon is aligned with the P site of the ribosome.
    C) RNA polymerase recognizes a promotor.
    D) Two strands of DNA are separated.
  29. Homologous chromosomes carry genes for the same traits, but not necessarily for the same expression of the traits
    A) True
    B) False
  30. Genetic recombination or crossing over is a major form of genetic variation.
    A) True
    B) False
    60. Prophase begins once daughter chromosomes appear at opposite poles of the cell.
    A) True
    B) False
    61. The 5′ end of one DNA strand would be directly across from the 3′ end of the sister strand. The term antiparallel refers to this condition
    A) True
    B) False
    62. There are 20 different codons, one for each naturally occurring amino acid.
    A) True
    B) False
    63. Point mutations are the source of new genetic material and account for evolutionary change. Most point mutations are detrimental
    A) True
    B) False
    64. Nondisjunction usually results in portions of chromosomes breaking and reattaching in novel ways.
    A) True
    B) False
    65. An animal that is heterozygous for a particular trait would possess two alleles for that trait.
    A) True
    B) False
    66. Independent assortment is explained by events occurring during the second division of meiosis.
    A) True
    B) False
    67. The visual expression of alleles is called the phenotype
    A) True
    B) False
    68. Codominance occurs when two alleles are expressed equally and the offspring resemble neither parent
    A) True
    B) False
    69. Which of the following individuals was an early proponent of evolution? Even though his explanation of how change in species occurs was incorrect, he was steadfast in promoting ideas of evolutionary change.
    A) Alfred Russel Wallace
    B) Charles Darwin
    C) Jean Baptiste Lamarck
    D) Godfrey H. Hardy
  31. According to Charles Darwin, evolution is most closely related to which concept?
    A) natural selection
    B) scientific creationism
    C) inheritance of acquired characteristics
    D) absence of change in a species
  32. The idea that the earth is shaped today by the forces of wind, rain, rivers, volcanoes, and geological uplift—just as it has been in the past—is known as
    A) uniformitarianism.
    B) phyletic gradualism.
    C) punctuated equilibrium.
    D) natural selection.
  33. The idea that the earth is shaped today by the forces of wind, rain, rivers, volcanoes, and geological uplift—just as it has been in the past—was developed by
    A) Charles Darwin.
    B) Alfred Russel Wallace.
    C) James Hutton and Charles Lyell.
    D) John Henslow.
  34. The discovery of fossils of horses, giant armadillos, and giant sloths in South America suggested to Charles Darwin that:
    A) horses evolved in Europe and were brought to America by early explorers.
    B) the species composition of the earth has changed through geological history.
    C) little change in South American life forms occurred since they originated.
    D) catastrophic events led to the extinction of mammals in South America.
  35. The formation of new species from an ancestral species in response to the opening of new habitats is:
    A) neutral selection.
    B) natural selection.
    C) neo-Darwinism.
    D) adaptive radiation.
  36. All of the following are a part of the theory of evolution by natural selection except one. Select the exception
    A) All organisms have a far greater reproductive potential than is ever realized.
    B) Inherited variations arise as a result of encountering an environmental challenge that must be overcome.
    C) There is a constant struggle for existence, and many individuals die.
    D) Adaptive traits are perpetuated in subsequent generations because individuals with less adaptive traits are less likely to reproduce than individuals with more adaptive traits.
  37. The combination of Darwinian evolutionary theory and population genetics is referred to as the:
    A) modern synthesis or neo-Darwinism.
    B) biogeography.
    C) adaptation theory.
    D) adaptive radiation.
  38. The development of pesticide resistance in crop pests is an example of
    A) macroevolution.
    B) convergent evolution.
    C) microevolution.
    D) minievolution.
  39. Structures and processes that are derived from a common ancestor are said to be
    A) analogous.
    B) homologous.
    C) convergent.
    D) divergent.
  40. The study of fossils is called
    A) geology.
    B) biogeography.
    C) comparative anatomy.
    D) paleontology.
  41. The theory of uniformitarianism was important for Charles Darwin’s ideas because it indicated that the earth was much older than 6,000 years and that the face of the earth changed gradually over its history.
    A) True
    B) False
  42. Ancestral finches encountered habitats in the Galapagos Islands that were devoid of other birds and predators. They rapidly multiplied and filled ecological roles that were unusual for finches on the mainland. This account is an example of adaptive radiation
    A) True
    B) False
  43. Natural selection is a positive force that selects from individuals with adaptive traits, allowing them to reproduce
    A) True
    B) False
  44. Evolutionary adaptations lead to perfection in a species
    A) True
    B) False
  45. Variations on which natural selection acts arise as a result of random mutations. A new variation may, or may not, be adaptive.
    A) True
    B) False
  46. In a fossil bed, older fossils would be found above younger fossils.
    A) True
    B) False
  47. Natural selection involves detrimental traits being eliminated from a population by the failure of the organism containing them to reproduce.
    A) True
    B) False
  48. An adaptation present in an organism in one environment may be maladaptive in another environment
    A) True
    B) False
  49. Over long periods of time, micro evolutionary changes may result in macroevolution
    A) True
    B) False
  50. New structures and processes are usually the result of evolutionary changes in existing structures and processes
    A) True
    B) False
  51. The results of convergent evolution are correctly depicted in tree diagrams
    A) True
    B) False
    1. A change in the frequency of alleles in a population is the definition of
    A) natural selection.
    B) genetic drift.
    C) evolution.
    D) gene flow.
  52. The study of genetic events that occur in gene pools is called
    A) evolutionary genetics.
    B) population genetics.
    C) gene pool biology.
    D) allopatry.
  53. If the requirements of the Hardy-Weinberg theorem are all met, then
    A) evolution is occurring rapidly.
    B) evolution is occurring slowly.
    C) evolution is not occurring.
    D) gene frequencies are changing.
  54. Which of the following statements is most accurate?
    A) Evolution is always occurring in all populations.
    B) Evolution occurs in virtually all populations at some point in their history.
    C) Evolution rarely occurs in any population.
    D) Evolution never occurs.
  55. Two tortoises are caught on a mat of floating vegetation and get carried out to sea. Their mat happens to land on a volcanic island that is inhabited by a small population of the same species. Breeding with the island tortoise population introduces new alleles that add to the genetic diversity of tortoises on the island. This account is an example of
    A) genetic drift.
    B) gene flow.
    C) natural selection.
    D) neutral selection.
    6. After a bottleneck event has occurred
  56. A) the genetic diversity of a population is greater.
    B) the genetic diversity of a population is decreased.
    C) the size of the population always increases.
    D) the size of the population always decreases.
    When chance events increase or decrease the frequencies of alleles in a population, _______ has occurred.
    A) genetic drift
    B) natural selection
    C) random mating
    D) gene flow
  57. From the perspective of a population, mutations are positive events because
    A) they weed out less fit individuals.
    B) they provide new genetic variations that can help ensure the survival of the species.
    C) most mutations make individuals stronger.
    D) they are always expressed when they occur.
  58. When a geographical barrier divides members of a population, ______ speciation may occur
    A) sympatric
    B) allopatric
    C) stabilizing
    D) directional
  59. A mutation that caused a change in courtship behavior occurred in, and spread among, a few members of a population of cranes. This change in courtship behavior prevents those that have the mutation from mating with those that do not have the mutation, even though the two groups share the same breeding territory. This mutation may cause _________ speciation
    A) sympatric
    B) allopatric
    C) stabilizing
    D) directional

Latest PPSC Zoology MCQs Type Sample Paper 2015 for Lecturers Jobs Must Prepare Now